Kant was proud of having discovered in man the faculty for synthetic judgements a priori. But “How are synthetic judgements a priori possible?” How did Kant answer? By saying “By virtue of a faculty” (though unfortunately not in five words). But is that an answer? Or rather merely a repetition of the question? How does opium induce sleep? “by virtue of a faculty, namely the virtus dormitiva”, replies the doctor in Molière. Such replies belong in comedy. It is high time to replace the Kantian question by another question, “Why is belief in such judgements necessary?”
Nietzsche, Beyond Good and Evil