People in the time of Aristotle believed things were logically 100% certain to have all the properties that were part of their definition.
Surely not all people in the time of Aristotle believed that?
Let me amend it:
Aristotle and his disciples believed that things were logically 100% certain to have all the properties that were part of their definition.
From which we can of course conclude, by definition, that every disciple of Aristotle believed this proposition.
Surely not all people in the time of Aristotle believed that?
Let me amend it:
From which we can of course conclude, by definition, that every disciple of Aristotle believed this proposition.