Since all brains are actually slightly different from one another (at least from a purely physical point of view), the hypothesis that other brains also have subjective experience is untenable due to its sheer complexity.
I don’t see any justification for the connecting “since”.
You believe that a single mapping between physical brains and subjective experiences can apply to all humans? What does this mapping look like? How many bits are needed to fully specify it?
Is it reasonable to expect me to necessarily be able to answer that question if materialism is true?
It’s about as reasonable as demanding an account of how the brain can mantain mesoscopic quantum superpositions long enough to influence neural processes.
(What does the mapping from entangled quantum states to experiences look like?)
We don’t know, but it’s going to be far simpler than a mapping from classical brains.
(For all we know, it could be trivial; perhaps each quale is a GENSYM which maps directly to a basis of the quantum system.)
I don’t see any justification for the connecting “since”.
You believe that a single mapping between physical brains and subjective experiences can apply to all humans? What does this mapping look like? How many bits are needed to fully specify it?
Is it reasonable to expect me to necessarily be able to answer that question if materialism is true?
(What does the mapping from entangled quantum states to experiences look like?)
It’s about as reasonable as demanding an account of how the brain can mantain mesoscopic quantum superpositions long enough to influence neural processes.
We don’t know, but it’s going to be far simpler than a mapping from classical brains.
(For all we know, it could be trivial; perhaps each quale is a GENSYM which maps directly to a basis of the quantum system.)