Let A = “pi is normal”, and B = “pi includes in it as a contiguous block the first 2^128 digits of e”. B is more likely to be provable in ZFC, simply because A requires B but not vice versa. A is vastly more likely to be proven by 2050. Is this a valid example, or do you see it as cheating in some way?
I’m not sure if this question is meaningful/interesting. It may be, but I’m not seeing it.
Suggested repair of your example: A= “Pi is normal” and B= “Pi includes as a contiguous block the first 2^128 digits of e within the first Ackermann(8) digits” which should do something similar.
Let A = “pi is normal”, and B = “pi includes in it as a contiguous block the first 2^128 digits of e”. B is more likely to be provable in ZFC, simply because A requires B but not vice versa. A is vastly more likely to be proven by 2050. Is this a valid example, or do you see it as cheating in some way?
I’m not sure if this question is meaningful/interesting. It may be, but I’m not seeing it.
Suggested repair of your example: A= “Pi is normal” and B= “Pi includes as a contiguous block the first 2^128 digits of e within the first Ackermann(8) digits” which should do something similar.
Doesn’t the fact that A implies B mean that it’s very easy to prove B once you’ve proved A?
You’re right, I blundered and this example is no good.