If voter preferences, presumably based on every individual’s analysis of which choice is best for the nation as a whole, are really so break-even, then how can we as a nation then claim that any one candidate is preferrable to any other at all?
The general assumption seems to be that one candidate is an evil mutant, and that his supporters are either deluded or also evil mutants. Which is which depends on who you ask.
The general assumption seems to be that one candidate is an evil mutant, and that his supporters are either deluded or also evil mutants. Which is which depends on who you ask.