As near as I can make out, the flaw is the assumption that there isn’t a proof of 2=1.
There’s no proof of Peano arithmetic being consistent, right? (There’s a proof of that lack of proof, of course. :))
As near as I can make out, the flaw is the assumption that there isn’t a proof of 2=1.
There’s no proof of Peano arithmetic being consistent, right? (There’s a proof of that lack of proof, of course. :))