Can you expand on how I would tell the difference between someone’s irritation at a mathematical theory, and that person’s irritation at the people who work on that theory and write about it and otherwise disseminate it into academia?
Well, this comment, which started this discussion, clearly shows irritation. I conjecture, it was not against Stuart_Armstrong’s research/publishing habits.
Your conjecture is not obvious to me. If you can expand on how you made that determination, I might learn something from the expansion. (Not, of course, that this obligates you in any way.)
I don’t see what you could possibly learn beside my own thinking habits, but ok (although, this is evidence collected after the fact): (1) there is nothing about modal logic in Stuart_Armstrong’s publications page, and (2) there are no EY’s comments in the last at least ten Stuart_Armstrong’s posts, except this one.
Can you expand on how I would tell the difference between someone’s irritation at a mathematical theory, and that person’s irritation at the people who work on that theory and write about it and otherwise disseminate it into academia?
Well, this comment, which started this discussion, clearly shows irritation. I conjecture, it was not against Stuart_Armstrong’s research/publishing habits.
Your conjecture is not obvious to me. If you can expand on how you made that determination, I might learn something from the expansion. (Not, of course, that this obligates you in any way.)
I don’t see what you could possibly learn beside my own thinking habits, but ok (although, this is evidence collected after the fact): (1) there is nothing about modal logic in Stuart_Armstrong’s publications page, and (2) there are no EY’s comments in the last at least ten Stuart_Armstrong’s posts, except this one.
OK, thanks.