This explanation can be generalized: the higher the average (mean or median) level of debt among any given population, the more difficulty markets among that population will have in clearing, because market adjustments don’t change the price-levels on time (hence debt: borrowing is buying time) that has already been bought and sold, forcing everyone to try and obtain the old prices (corresponding to prices when they took their loans) whenever they can.
Does this also imply that government debt is less harmful to the economy than private debt, all else being equal?
While I have not rigorously researched that issue, I would call it a plausible view: the state is a single market actor, so outside markets driven entirely by state demand (which, admittedly, are myriad), the state’s problems don’t affect general price-levels.
Does this also imply that government debt is less harmful to the economy than private debt, all else being equal?
While I have not rigorously researched that issue, I would call it a plausible view: the state is a single market actor, so outside markets driven entirely by state demand (which, admittedly, are myriad), the state’s problems don’t affect general price-levels.