Is the idea that the proof necessary to use 1 is of infinite length, and you want your logic to be finitary? Hm. This seems odd, because P(s|T∞) is in some sense already a function with an infinitely long argument. How do you feel about using 2 in the form of P(T∞|T0)=P(Tn|T0)⋅[someprobability], therefore P(T∞|T0)≤P(Tn|T0), which has the same amount of argument as P(s|T∞)? I’m confused about at least one thing.
Also, is there some reason you prefer not to reply using the button below the comment?
Is the idea that the proof necessary to use 1 is of infinite length, and you want your logic to be finitary? Hm. This seems odd, because P(s|T∞) is in some sense already a function with an infinitely long argument. How do you feel about using 2 in the form of P(T∞|T0)=P(Tn|T0)⋅[someprobability], therefore P(T∞|T0)≤P(Tn|T0), which has the same amount of argument as P(s|T∞)? I’m confused about at least one thing.
Also, is there some reason you prefer not to reply using the button below the comment?