First, you defined C, a.k.a. the “criterion of truth”, like this:
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true.
Ok, that’s only mildly impossible, let’s see where this leads us…
But then, you say:
The counterfactual I’m proposing with C is exactly one that would allow not just any mind, but literally anything at all to comprehend A. The existence of C would create a universe wholly unlike our own, which is why I think we’re all in agreement that the existence of such a thing is extremely unlikely even though we can’t formally prove that it doesn’t exist.
Why should the thing you defined in the first quote, lead to anything even remotely resembling the second quote? There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
I’m saying the thing in the first quote, saying C exists, is the extremely impossible magic. I guess I don’t know how to convey this part of the argument any more clearly, as it seems to me to follow directly and objections I can think of to it hinge on assuming things you would know contingent on what you think about C and thus are not admissible here.
Maybe it would help if I gave an example? Let’s say C exists. Okay, great, now we can tell if things are true independent of any mind since C is a real fact of the world, not a belief (it’s part of the territory). Now I can establish as a matter of fact (or rather we have no way to express this correctly, but the fact can be established independent of any subject) whether or not the sky is blue independent of any observer because there is an argument contingent on C which tells us whether the statement “the sky is blue” is true or false. Now this statement is true or false in the territory and not in necessarily in any map. We’d say this is a realist position rather than an anti-realist one. This would have to mean then that this fact would be true for anything we might treat as a subject of which we could ask “does X know the fact of the matter about whether or not the sky is blue”. Thus we could ask if a rock knows whether or not the sky is blue and it would be a meaningful question about a matter of fact and not a category error like it is when we deny the knowability of C because then we have taken an anti-realist position. This is what I’m trying to say about saying there are universally compelling arguments if we assume C: the truth of matters then shifts from existing in the map to existing in the territory, and so now there can be universally compelling arguments for things that are true even if the subject is too dumb to understand them they will still be true for them regardless.
I’m not sure that helps but that’s the best I can think up right now.
I’m also a bit confused about your definition of C.
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true.
Suppose there exists a special magic eight ball that shows the word “true” or “false” when you shake it after making any statement, and that it always gives the correct answer.
Would you agree that use of this special magic eight ball represents a “procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true”, and so anyone who knows how to use the magic eight ball knows the criterion of truth?
If so, I don’t see how you get from there to saying that a rock must be convinced, or really that anyone must therefore be convinced of anything.
Just because there exists a procedure for assessing truth (absolutely correctly), doesn’t therefore mean that everyone uses that procedure, right?
Suppose that Alice has never seen nor heard of the magic eight ball, and does not know it exists. Just the fact that it exists doesn’t imply anything about her state of mind, does it?
Was there supposed to be some part of the definition of C that my magic eight ball story doesn’t capture, which implies that it represents a universally compelling argument?
Just being able to give the correct answer to any yes/no question does not seem like it’s enough to be universally compelling.
EDIT: If the hypothetical was not A) “there exists… a procedure to (correctly) assess if any given statement is true”, but rather B) “every mind has access to and in fact uses a procedure that correctly assesses if any given statement is true”, then I would agree that the hypothetical implies universally compelling arguments.
Do you mean to be supposing B rather than A when you talk about the hypothetical criterion of truth?
But you’ve done a sleight of hand!
First, you defined C, a.k.a. the “criterion of truth”, like this:
Ok, that’s only mildly impossible, let’s see where this leads us…
But then, you say:
Why should the thing you defined in the first quote, lead to anything even remotely resembling the second quote? There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
I’m saying the thing in the first quote, saying C exists, is the extremely impossible magic. I guess I don’t know how to convey this part of the argument any more clearly, as it seems to me to follow directly and objections I can think of to it hinge on assuming things you would know contingent on what you think about C and thus are not admissible here.
Maybe it would help if I gave an example? Let’s say C exists. Okay, great, now we can tell if things are true independent of any mind since C is a real fact of the world, not a belief (it’s part of the territory). Now I can establish as a matter of fact (or rather we have no way to express this correctly, but the fact can be established independent of any subject) whether or not the sky is blue independent of any observer because there is an argument contingent on C which tells us whether the statement “the sky is blue” is true or false. Now this statement is true or false in the territory and not in necessarily in any map. We’d say this is a realist position rather than an anti-realist one. This would have to mean then that this fact would be true for anything we might treat as a subject of which we could ask “does X know the fact of the matter about whether or not the sky is blue”. Thus we could ask if a rock knows whether or not the sky is blue and it would be a meaningful question about a matter of fact and not a category error like it is when we deny the knowability of C because then we have taken an anti-realist position. This is what I’m trying to say about saying there are universally compelling arguments if we assume C: the truth of matters then shifts from existing in the map to existing in the territory, and so now there can be universally compelling arguments for things that are true even if the subject is too dumb to understand them they will still be true for them regardless.
I’m not sure that helps but that’s the best I can think up right now.
I’m also a bit confused about your definition of C.
Suppose there exists a special magic eight ball that shows the word “true” or “false” when you shake it after making any statement, and that it always gives the correct answer.
Would you agree that use of this special magic eight ball represents a “procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true”, and so anyone who knows how to use the magic eight ball knows the criterion of truth?
If so, I don’t see how you get from there to saying that a rock must be convinced, or really that anyone must therefore be convinced of anything.
Just because there exists a procedure for assessing truth (absolutely correctly), doesn’t therefore mean that everyone uses that procedure, right?
Suppose that Alice has never seen nor heard of the magic eight ball, and does not know it exists. Just the fact that it exists doesn’t imply anything about her state of mind, does it?
Was there supposed to be some part of the definition of C that my magic eight ball story doesn’t capture, which implies that it represents a universally compelling argument?
Just being able to give the correct answer to any yes/no question does not seem like it’s enough to be universally compelling.
EDIT: If the hypothetical was not A) “there exists… a procedure to (correctly) assess if any given statement is true”, but rather B) “every mind has access to and in fact uses a procedure that correctly assesses if any given statement is true”, then I would agree that the hypothetical implies universally compelling arguments.
Do you mean to be supposing B rather than A when you talk about the hypothetical criterion of truth?