For simple questions like that (and absent strong priors) the frequentists and the Bayesians will come to very similar conclusions and very similar probabilities.
Yes, but the p-value and the posterior probability aren’t even the same question, are they?
Yes, but the p-value and the posterior probability aren’t even the same question, are they?
No, they are not.
However for many simple cases—e.g. where we are considering only two possible hypotheses—they are sufficiently similar.