I think a similar type of financial fraud is often detectable via violations of Benford’s law. Or more generally, it’s hard to fake the right distribution. As another case of that principle, you’d expect the discrepancy between polls and results to fall within a predictable distribution if they were sampling from the same space.
But would pollsters actually, in real life detect an odd discrepancy between one district and another and loudly proclaim it as voter fraud? Do we even know if such irrelegularities have happened before?
Maybe? I was not trying to answer the object level question either way, but instead just pointing out what sort of evidence there might be that could answer this.
I think a similar type of financial fraud is often detectable via violations of Benford’s law. Or more generally, it’s hard to fake the right distribution. As another case of that principle, you’d expect the discrepancy between polls and results to fall within a predictable distribution if they were sampling from the same space.
But would pollsters actually, in real life detect an odd discrepancy between one district and another and loudly proclaim it as voter fraud? Do we even know if such irrelegularities have happened before?
Maybe? I was not trying to answer the object level question either way, but instead just pointing out what sort of evidence there might be that could answer this.
(Sorry)