This post (and the author’s comments) don’t seem to be getting a great response and I’m confused why? The post seems pretty reasonable and the author’s comments are well informed.
My read of the main thrust is “don’t concentrate on a specific paradigm and instead look at this trend that has held for over 100 years”.
Can someone concisely explain why they think this is misguided? Is it just concerns over the validity of fitting parameters for a super-exponential model?
(I would also add that on priors when people claim “There is no way we can improve FLOPs/$ because of reasons XYZ” they have historically always been wrong.)
This post (and the author’s comments) don’t seem to be getting a great response and I’m confused why? The post seems pretty reasonable and the author’s comments are well informed.
My read of the main thrust is “don’t concentrate on a specific paradigm and instead look at this trend that has held for over 100 years”.
Can someone concisely explain why they think this is misguided? Is it just concerns over the validity of fitting parameters for a super-exponential model?
(I would also add that on priors when people claim “There is no way we can improve FLOPs/$ because of reasons XYZ” they have historically always been wrong.)