Not necessarily; if anything, I was in fact agreeing with you that some portion of people’s ‘existing acculturation’ to middle-class culture is not, strictly speaking, neutral, due to historical path dependence if nothing else. But I still think it may be unproductive and even pointless for people to act overly “touchy” about such subjects. Should, e.g. Quebeckers, and perhaps Francophones in general, feel justified about their “touchy” attitude wrt. the cultural dominance of English?
I agree. Do you think there’s some other opinion I should hold differently because of this, either stated or implied?
Not necessarily; if anything, I was in fact agreeing with you that some portion of people’s ‘existing acculturation’ to middle-class culture is not, strictly speaking, neutral, due to historical path dependence if nothing else. But I still think it may be unproductive and even pointless for people to act overly “touchy” about such subjects. Should, e.g. Quebeckers, and perhaps Francophones in general, feel justified about their “touchy” attitude wrt. the cultural dominance of English?