Is it true that:
If I(X;Y) = 0 then I(S;X) + I(S;Y) ⇐ I(S;X,Y)
Can you find a counterexample, or prove this and teach me your proof?
Someone showed me a simple analytic proof. I am still interested in seeing different ways people might prove this though.
[Question] Is the sum individual informativeness of two independent variables no more than their joint informativeness?
Is it true that:
If I(X;Y) = 0 then I(S;X) + I(S;Y) ⇐ I(S;X,Y)
Can you find a counterexample, or prove this and teach me your proof?
Someone showed me a simple analytic proof. I am still interested in seeing different ways people might prove this though.