The point goes both ways—following Bayes’ rule means not being able to update away from 100%, but the reverse is likely as well—unless there exists for every hypothesis, not only evidence against it, but also evidence that completely disproves it, there isn’t evidence that if agent B observes, they will ascribe anything 100% or 0% probability (if they didn’t start out that way).
So a Bayesian agent can’t become infinitely confused unless they obtain infinite knowledge, or have bad priors. (One may simulate a Bayesian with bad priors.)
Pattern, i miscommunicated my question, i didn’t mean to ask about a Bayesian agent in the sense of a rational agent. just what is the mathematical result from plucking certain numbers into the equation.
I am well aware now and before the post, that a rational agent won’t have a 100% prior, and won’t find evidence equal to a 100%, that wasn’t where the question stemmed from.
The point goes both ways—following Bayes’ rule means not being able to update away from 100%, but the reverse is likely as well—unless there exists for every hypothesis, not only evidence against it, but also evidence that completely disproves it, there isn’t evidence that if agent B observes, they will ascribe anything 100% or 0% probability (if they didn’t start out that way).
So a Bayesian agent can’t become infinitely confused unless they obtain infinite knowledge, or have bad priors. (One may simulate a Bayesian with bad priors.)
Pattern, i miscommunicated my question, i didn’t mean to ask about a Bayesian agent in the sense of a rational agent. just what is the mathematical result from plucking certain numbers into the equation.
I am well aware now and before the post, that a rational agent won’t have a 100% prior, and won’t find evidence equal to a 100%, that wasn’t where the question stemmed from.